PGIMER, Chandigarh, chapter ASPHYXIA, FMT Questions.

              PGIMER, CHANDIGARH

                              CHAPTER  ASPHYXIA

1. The conclusion post mortem finding of death by drowning (PGI 1992)

     A. Cutis anserine

     B. Presence of water in the middle ear

     C. Edematous lungs

     D. Demonstration of diatoms in the organs of the body.

Answer:  D. Demonstration of diatoms in the organs of the body.

2. Cafe coronary commonly occurs when a person is (PGI 1992)

     A. Intoxicated

     B. Eating fatty food

     C. Eating meat

     D. Eating fish.

Answer: A. Intoxicated.

3. Hanging causes large amount of injury to (PGI 1998)

     A. Vertebral artery

     B. Carotid artery

     C. Trachea

     D. Oesophagus.

Answer:  B. Carotid artery.

4. All are seen in drowning except (PGI 1999)

    A. Miosis

    B. Wet heavy lungs

    C. Water and weeds in stomach and lung

    D. Froth from mouth.

Answer: A. Miosis.

5. Features supporting strangulation are (PGI 2001)

     A. Blood outside vessels in microscopy from skin of ligature site

     B. Dribbling of saliva from angle of mouth

     C. Marked cyanosis of face

     D. Bloody froth in mouth and nostrils

     E. Ligature mark.

 Answer: A; C & D.

6. Ideal tissue for diatom study (PGI June 2005)

    A. Bone marrow of femur

    B. Lung

    C. Liver

    D. Brain

    E. Kidney.

Answer: A. Bone marrow of femur.

7. Goose skin or cutis anserina seen in (PGI June 2005)

     A. Drowning

     B. Lightening

     C. Strangulation

     D. Fire arm injury.

Answer: A. Drowning.

PGIMER, Chandigarh, chapter MECHANICAL INJURIES, FMT Questions.

                PGIMER, CHANDIGARH

                             CHAPTER  MECHANICAL INJURIES

1. Injury that comes under sec 320 IPC (PGI 1997)

    A. Abrasion over face

    B. Nasal bone fracture

    C. Epistaxis

    D. Lacerated wound over scalp.

Answer: B. Nasal bone fracture.

2. Grievous injuries are (PGI 2000)

    A. Severe bodily pain for 10 days

    B. Not able to work for 17 days

    C. Dislocation of tooth

    D. Bone fracture

    E. Joint dislocation

 

Answer: C; D & E.

3. Depressed # of skull results from (PGI 2000)

    A. Heavy object with small striking surface

    B. Heavy object with large striking surface

    C. Fall over the ground

    D. Light object.

Answer: A. Heavy object with small striking surface.

4. Which of the following are grievous injury (PGI 2003)

     A. Emasculation

     B. Privation of any member of joint

     C. Permanent disfiguration of head or face

     D. Injury that heals spontaneously without any damage

     E. Injury causing an absence from work for 15 days.

Answer: A; B & C.

5. Tests for detection of heavy metal (PGI Dec 2004)

    A. Harrison's Gilroy test

    B. Atomic absorption spectroscopy

    C. Neutron activation analysis

    D. Partition activation analysis

    E. Thin layer chromatography.

Answer: A; B & C.

6. Not a grievous hurt (PGI May 2010)

    A. Emasculation

    B. Contusion over scalp

    C. Fracture of bone

    D. Hurt which endanger life

    E. Severe bodily pain for 15 days.

Answer: B. Contusion over scalp & E. Severe bodily pain for 15 days.

PGIMER, Chandigarh, chapter MECHANICAL INJURIES, FMT Questions.

              PGIMER, CHANDIGARH

                   CHAPTER  MECHANICAL  INJURIES

1. Antemortem bruise is differentiated from postmortem bruise by (PGI 1999)

    A. Well defined margin

    B. Capillary rupture with extravasation blood and ligature mark

    C. Yellow colour

    D. Gaping.

Answer: C. Yellow colour.

2. Use of wadding in a smooth bore gun rifle produces all except (PGI 2000)

    A. Causes fatal injuries

    B. Helps in lubrication

    C. Optimum pressure

    D. Sealing the air.

Answer: A. Causes fatal injuries.

3. Incised looking laceration is seen in all except (PGI 2001)

    A. Iliac crest

    B. Zygomatic bone

    C. Shin

    D. Chest.

Answer: D. Chest.

4. Lacerated wound appears as incised wound in which of the following sites (PGI 2001)

    A. Scalp

    B. Tibial shin

    C. Anterior abdominal wall

    D. Anterior thigh

    D. Around the hip.

Answer:  A. Scalp & B. Tibial shin.

5. Lacerated wound looks like incised wound over (PGI 2001)

    A. Scalp

    B. Abdomen

    C. Thigh

    D. Forearm

Answer:  A. Scalp.

6. Difference between antemortem wounds and postmortem wounds, in favour 

    of AM wounds is/are (PGI 2001)

    A. Are larger

    B. Increased gaping of wounds

    C. Increased enzyme activity

    D. Oozing of blood.

Answer:   B. Increased gaping of wounds &  C. Increased enzyme activity.

7. All are components of gun-powder except (PGI 2002)

    A. Charcoal

    B. Lead peroxide

    C. Potassium nitrate

    D. Sulphur.

Answer: B. Lead peroxide.

8. Black gun powder made of (PGI Dec 2006)

    A. Potassium nitrate

    B. Charcoal

    C. Sulphur powder

    D. Cellulose nitrate

    E. Barium sulphate.

Answer: A; B & C.

9. FG, FFG, FFFG... used to describe (PGI Dec 2008)

    A. Primer

    B. Cartridge

    C. Black gunpowder

    D. Base of firearms.

Answer: C. Black gunpowder.

10. Tentative cut is indicative of (PGI 2009)

       A. Homicide

       B. Accidental

       C. Suicidal

       D. Fall from height

       E. Road traffic accident.

Answer: C. Suicidal.

11. Differentiating features of contusion (Vs Postmortem staining) are (PGI May 2010)

      A. Bluish in colour

      B. Disappear on pressure area

      C. Margin irregular

      D. Limited to intravascular compartment

      E. Extravasation of blood occurs.

Answer: C. Margin irregular & E. Extravasation of blood occurs.

12. False about bruise (PGI Nov 2010)

      A. Much darker at point of contact/pressure

      B. Blood is present in vessel and can be easily washed away

      C. Seen at/around the area of injury

      D. Extravasation of blood occurs

      E. Produced by blunt object.

Answer: A & B.

PGIMER, Chandigarh, chapter DEATH and POSTMORTEM CHANGES, FMT Questions

                PGIMER,CHANDIGARH

     CHAPTER  DEATH  and POSTMORTEM CHANGES

1. Minimum quantity of blood required to be preserved for chemical analysis (PGI 1993)

    A. 2 ml

    B. 10 ml

    C. 50 ml

    D. 100 ml.

Answer: B, 10 ml.

2. Mummification occurs when (PGI 1993)

    A. High atmospheric temp. is present

    B. Dry air present

    C. Wind is present

    D. All are correct.

Answer:   D. All are correct.

3. The time limit for ordering of exhumation in India is (PGI 1995)

    A. 1 month

    B. 1 year

    C. 10 years

    D. No limit.

Answer: D. No limit.

4. Last organ to be affected in putrefaction (PGI 1995)

    A. Prostate

    B. Uterus

    C. Kidney

    D. Thyroid.

Answer: A. Prostate & B. Uterus.

5. Putrefaction is facilitated by following except (PGI 1997)

    A. Very high temp.

    B. Free air

    C. Damp environment

    D. Shallow grave.

Answer: A. Very high temp.

6. Maggots in rainy day seen within (PGI 1997)

    A. 6 hrs

    B. 1-2 days

    C. 2-4 days

    D. 5-6 days.

Answer: C. 2-4 days.

7. While dispatching blood and urine chemical analysis sodium fluoride is added 

     as preservative in the following concentration (PGI 1997)

     A. 30 mg/10 ml

     B. 40 mg/ 10 ml

     C. 50 mg/ ml.

     D. 100 mg/ 10 ml.

Answer: D. 100 mg/ 10 ml.

8. First internal sign of putrefaction is found (PGI 1998)

    A. Below the liver

    B. In mediastinum

    C. Below the spleen   

    D. In kidney.

Answer: A. Below the liver.

9. Adipocere formation is seen in (PGI 1999)

    A. Dead body exposed to air

    B. Dead body buried in damp, clay soil

    C. Burial dry hot air

    D. Prolonged immersion in water.

Answer: B & D.

10. True statement regarding mummification (PGI 2001)

      A. Time since death

      B. Facial features are preserved

      C. Skin is shrunken, dry and brown

      D. Implies the body was recovered from  a hot and dry place

      E. Modified putrefaction.

Answer: A; B; C; D & E.

11. Adipocere formation is characterised by all except (PGI 2002)

      A. Hydrolysis and hydrogenation of fat

      B. Foul smell

      C. Cheesy odour

      D. Develops in dampy clay soil in whole body.

Answer: C. Cheesy odour.

12. True about adipocere (PGI 2002)

      A. Common in dry and cold climate

      B. Also called saponification

      C. Sweetish smell

      D. Occurs due to gradual hydrolysis and hydrogenation of fats.

Answer: B; C & D. 

PGIMER, Chandigarh, chapter DEATH and POSTMORTEM CHANGES, FMT Questions

                PGIMER, CHANDIGARH

        Chapter DEATH and POSTMORTEM CHANGES

1. Rigor mortis first start in (PGI 1992)

    A. Upper eyelids                B. Lower eyelids

    C. Lower limbs                  D. Fingers

Answer: A; Upper eyelids.

2. Cadaveric spasm (PGI 1994)

     A. Instant in onset

     B. Confined to a small group of muscle

     C. Occurs only in voluntary muscles

     D. Indicates that the person was active at the time

     E. All of the above.

Answer: E. All of the above.

3. Cadaveric spasm (PGI 1994)

    A. Immediate after death

    B. After 2 hours of death

    C. Affects voluntary muscles

    D. Affects involuntary muscle.

Answer: A. Immediate after death & C. Affects voluntary muscles.

4. Rigor mortis develops ......... after death (PGI 1997)

    A. 1/2-1 hrs

    B. 1-2 hrs

    C. 3-6 hrs

    D. 12 hrs.

Answer: B. 1-2 hrs.

5. Rigor mortis in winter season in Northern India lasts for (PGI 1997)

    A. 24-48 hr

    B. > 24 hr

    C. 2-3 days

    D. >3 days.

Answer: A. 24-48 hr.

6. Rigor mortis start in (PGI 1998)

    A. Eyelids

    B. Heart

    C. Voluntary muscles

    D. Limbs

Answer: B. Heart.

7. True about cadaveric spasm (PGI 2000)

    A. Develops immediately after death

    B. May develop hours after death

    C. Develops only in facial muscles

    D. Involves individual/small group of muscles.

Answer: A. Develops immediately after death &  D. Involves individual/small group of muscles.

8. Rigor mortis first seen in (PGI 2004)

    A. Myocardium

    B. Upper eye lid

    C. Lower eye lid

    D. Jaw

    E. Leg.

Answer: A. Myocardium.

9. True about rigor mortis (PGI 2004)

    A. First appear in chin

    B. It last 18-36 hours in summer

    C. Seen immediately after death

    D. It disappears in sequence as it appears

    E. It last 24-48 hrs in winter.

Answer: B, D & E.

10. All of the following statements about cadaveric spasm are false except (PGI Dec 2005)

     A. Occurs spontaneous after death

     B. Occurs after 6 hrs

     C. Occurs after burns

     D. Occurs after all death

     E. Affect all muscles of body.

Answer: A. Occurs spontaneous after death.

11. Which of the following simulates Rigor mortis (PGI Dec 2006)

      A. Heat stiffening

      B. Cold stiffening

      C. Strychnine

      D. Tetanus

      E. Putrefaction.

Answer: A, B & E.

12. Immediate stiffness postmortem occurs in (PGI Nov 2009)

      A. Cadveric rigidity

      B. Cadaveric spasm

      C. Rigor mortis

      D. Algor mortis.

Answer: B. Cadaveric spasm.

       

PGIMER, Chandigarh, chapter Death and Postmortem Changes, FMT Questions

                  PGIMER, CHANDIGARH

                            chapter Death and Postmortem Changes

1. The rate of cooling down of dead bodies in tropical climate is (PGI 1994)

     A. 0.2 degree C/hours

     B. 0.5 degree C/hours

     C. 1.0 degree C/hours

     D. 1.5 degree C/hours.

Answer: B, 0.5 degree C/hours.

2. If a body is left undisturbed, for how long does post mortem staining persists (PGI 1997)

    A. Few hours

    B. Few days

    C. Few month

    D. Persists till merges with discolouration of putrefaction.

Answer: D; Persists till merges with discolouration of putrefaction.

3. Post mortem staining gets fixed after (PGI 1995)

    A. 2-3 hrs

    B. 3-4 hrs

    C. 5-6 hrs

    D. 6-7 hrs

    E. 7-8 hrs.

Answer:   D. 6-7 hrs &  E. 7-8 hrs.

4. Hypostasis lasts for (PGI 1998)

     A. Hours

     B. Days

     C. Weeks

     D. Months.

Answer: B; Days.

5. Suspended animation is defined as (PGI 1998)

    A. Apparent death from which person can be aroused

    B. True death from which person can not be aroused

    C. May last for days or weeks

    D. Call not be produced voluntarily.

Answer:  A; Apparent death from which person can be aroused.

6. Post mortem lividity persists till (PGI 2001)

    A. 24 hours

    B. 18 hours

    C. 2-3 hours

    D. 48 hours

    E. Merges with putrefactive changes.

Answer: E; Merges with putrefactive changes.

7. Which is true about somatic death (PGI 2003)

     A. Cooling of the body

     B. Cessation of spontaneous respiration

     C. Cessation of circulation

     D. Flat isoelectric E.E.G.

     E. Deep unconsciousness with no response to external stimuli or internal need.

Answer: B, C, D, & E.

8. Postmortem caloricity is (PGI 2003)

    A. Increased temp. within 2 hrs of death

    B. Rapid fall in temp. after death

    C. Increased temp. after 6-8 hrs of death

    D. Decreases in temperature followed by rise.

Answer: A. Increased temp. within 2 hrs of death.

9. In which Northern India postmortem staining seen in (PGI June 2005)

    A. 6 hr after death

    B. 12 hr after death

    C. 24 hr after death

    D. 18 hr after death

    E. 36 hr after death.

Answer: A; 6 hr after death.

10. True statement regarding postmortem hypostasis is/are (PGI Dec 2005)

       A. Also known as rigor mortis

       B. Starts within 8 hrs of death

       C. Present all over the body

       D. It is present on dependent part

       E. Starts as blotchy discolouration.

Answer: D & E.

11. True about suspended animation (PGI May 2010)

       A. Common phenomenon in yogic person

       B. Can be voluntary

       C. Similar to molecular death

       D. Similar to brain death

       E. Person can be revived.

Answer: A, B, & E.

12. All are true about postmortem staining except (PGI May 2010)

      A. Occur immediate after death

      B. Common in dependent part

      C. Disappear with rigor mortis

      D. Margins are raised

      E. Not found in internal organ.

Answer: A, C, D, & E.

 

13. True about molecular death (PGI Nov 2010)

       A. Same as cellular death

       B. Same as cellular death as indicated by rigor mortis

       C. Indicated by stopping of heart function and flat ECG

       D. Brain death

       E. All cells of body die.

Answer: A, B, & E.

PGIMER, Chandigarh, chapter IDENTIFICATION, FMT Questions

                      PGIMER, CHANDIGARH

                                 CHAPTER -  IDENTIFICATION

1. The age of a 16 years old female is best determined by the radiograph of (PGI 1987)

     A. Lower end of radius and ulna

     B. Upper end of humerus

     C. Upper end  of radius and ulna

     D. Xiphisternum

Ans: A.

2. Most specific  and sensitive for identification is (PGI 98)

    A. Anthropometry

    B. Dactylography

    C. Skull

    D. Pelvis.

Answer: B.

3. Sex determination from pelvis possible up to 95% accuracy from following except: 

                                                                                                                       (PGI 2000)

    A. Greater sciatic notch

    B. Pre auricular sulcus

    C. Obturator foramen

    D. Sub pubic arch

    E. None

  

Answer: E.

4. 99% sex difference can be done by all features of pelvic bones except (PGI 2000)

     A. Sub pubic angle

     B. Greater sciatic notch

     C. Pre auricular sulcus

     D. Pubic rami

     E. None

  

Answer: E.

5. Best bone to assess age between 20-50 years (PGI 2000)

    A. Skull

    B. Ribs

    C. Sternum

    D. Symphysis pubis.

Answer: A.

6. Cephalic index is useful for determination of (PGI 2003, 2004)

     A. Age

     B. Sex

     C. Race

     D. Religion

     E. Caste.

Answer: C.

7. A skull with squared orbit & rectangular palate with cephalic index 75 with 

    broad nose, probably the race is (PGI 2004)  

    A. Negroes

    B. Mongoloids

    C. Europeans

    D. Oriental.

Answer: A.

8. Pre-auricular sulcus helps in detection of (PGI Dec 2004)

    A. Age

    B. Sex

    C. Race

    D. Height

    E. Religion.

Answer: B.

9. Differentiating feature of female pelvis is (PGI Dec 2005)

    A. Sub pubic angle V-shaped

    B. Sub pubic angle U-shaped and obtuse

    C. Pre auricular sulcus is prominent

    D. Ischial tuberosity is everted and obturator foramen is large and oval

    E. Ischial tuberosity is everted and obturator foramen is small and triangular.

Answer: B, C, & E.

10. Which of the following is true about eruption of teeth? (PGI Dec 2005)

       A. Premolar appear in primary dentition

       B. Incisors is first to appear in secondary dentition

       C. 3rd molars is last to appear in primary dentition

       D. Canines is second last to appear in primary dentition

       E. Hypothyroidism delays dentition.

Answer: D & E.

11. Study of finger printing is (PGI June 2005)

      A. DNA finger printing

      B. Dactylography

      C. Gene analysis

      D. Poroscopy

      E. Cheiloscopy

 

Answer: B.

12. Legal age for marriage for boys in India (PGI June 2006)

      A. 18

      B. 19

      C. 20

      D. 21

      E. 25.

Answer: D.

13. True about female pelvis (PGI June 2009)

       A. C-shaped pelvic cavity

       B. Pelvic inlet is wider posteriorly

       C. Pelvic inlet is heart shaped

       D. Subpubic angle is 70 degrees

       E. Ischiopubic index is 80 plus or minus 5.

Answer: None of these options are correct.

14. Charting of left lower canine is all except (PGI Nov 2009)

       A. 33 in FDI

       B. 43 in Modified FDI

       C. 22 in Palmar notation

       D. -3 in Haderup

Answer: C.

15. At what age, a person can be called as major (According to "Indian Majority Act") 

      (PGI Nov 2009)

      A. 16

      B. 18

      C. 21

      D. 25

      E. 12.

Answer:  B & C.

16. Which of the following is not seen in finger prints (PGI 2009)

       A. Loop

       B. Circles

       C. Whorl

       D. Arch.

Answer: B.

  

   

PGIMER, Chandigarh, chapter MEDICAL JURISPRUDENCE, FMT Questions

               PGIMER, CHANDIGARH

                      MEDICAL JURISPRUDENCE

1. Law does not consider the following doctrine in a charge of criminal negligence 

                                                                                                            (PGI 1993)

     A. Vicarious liability

     B. Contributory negligence

     C. Res ipsa loquitur

     D. Novus actus interveniens.

Answer: A.

2. 20 years old young female comes to a male gynaecologist for pelvic examination 

                                                                                                             (PGI 1995)

     A. Implied consent

     B. Written consent

     C. Verbal consent

     D. Informed consent.

Answer: A.

3. A quack gives a penicillin injection to a patient who dies due to it. Will the quack be 

    relieved for his criminal responsibility by raising a plea of accident (PGI 1996)

     A. Definitely

     B. Likely to 

     C. Never

     D. Deserves to be acquitted on the Strength of evidence

Answer:    C.

PGIMER, Chandigarh, chapter MEDICOLEGAL PROCEDURES, FMT Questions.

                             PGIMER, CHANDIGARH

                         MEDICO LEGAL PROCEDURES

1. Criminal responsibility in Indian constitution is included in IPC section (PGI 1991)

     A. 84                                                  B. 300

     C. 302                                                D. 304.

Answer: A.

2.  Which carries more weight in a court of law (PGI 1992)

     A. Dying declaration

     B. Dying deposition

     C. Both carry the same weight

     D. Both are not significant.

Answer: B.

3. Coroner's court is present at (PGI 1997)

     A. Bombay                          

     B. Delhi                  

     C. Madras

     D. Banglore                         

     E. Chandigarh.

Answer:  A.

NOTE: Coroner's court held nowhere in India at present. It was  used to be held in Bombay, but it was abolished  from 1999.

4. Powers of a 1st class magistrate  (PGI  June 2006)

     A. Fine up to Rs. 5000 & 3 years imprisonment

     B. Fine up to Rs. 3000

     C. Unlimited fine

     D. Up to 1 year imprisonment.

Answer: A.

 

5. Police inquest is all except: (PGI Nov 2010)

    A.  Senior head constable can investigate

    B.  Most common inquest

    C.  Panchanama has to be signed by IO

    D.  IO may not summon

    E.  Done by subinspector

Answer: D.